A biotech company discovers an early drug candidate, e.g. a molecular-glue degrader hitting a disease-relevant protein.
Bringing it to market takes many costly development steps and the outcome is uncertain. The biotech won't go it alone: it will sell or license the asset to a pharmaceutical company. The choice is when to sell:
Possible reasons why the timing of sale matters:
We shut all three down: no development-cost advantage, risk-neutral parties, no financial frictions.
What determines the timing of sale, and is it efficient?
A framework with a buyer and a seller, where:
We then:
$O$ = boxes opened by the buyer, $i$ = box adopted, $t$ = transfer.
We consider two different information frameworks:
Reservation value $r$ uniquely solves
The reservation value is well-defined for every box: each box $(F_i,c_i)$ has its own $r_i$, computed from its distribution and cost via the equation above.
With a price $P$, the buyer treats the seller's box as a box with reservation $r(P)$ solving
The right-hand side grows with $P$, so the reservation value $r(P)$ is decreasing in $P$.
Now $v$ is the realized value of box 0; the buyer compares $v-P$ against the alternatives.
Suppose the buyer has no other boxes, $\mathcal{B}=\{\emptyset\}$, so the seller's box is the only option.
Without alternatives, conditioning the price on $v$ is exactly what an open box cannot do, so the asymmetry strictly hurts.
Consider the general model with $\mathcal{B}\ne\{\emptyset\}$. What is the probability the buyer purchases the seller's box?
All the uncertainty about the buyer's alternatives collapses into $Q$, the cdf of a stochastic outside option. Keeping the box structure (rather than assuming $Q$) buys richer inefficiencies, welfare, comparative statics, and extensions.
The buyer will not buy the closed box iff there is an alternative box $i$ with $r_i>r(P)$ and $v_i>r(P)$.
Compare the value of selling open vs. closed:
Proof sketch. The threshold structure follows from a single-crossing property plus two boundary checks:
Change of variables. Optimize over the reservation $r$ instead of the price $P$. Since $$P=\int_r^{\bar v}(v-r)\,dF(v)-c$$,
Single crossing. Comparing the slopes in $c$:
Open dominates for low $c$ (steeper $V_0$ starts higher); closed dominates once cost is high.
It suffices to show $V_0(0)\ge V_1(0)$. Let $r^*$ be the optimal reservation for the closed box at $c=0$,
The high price $2\bar v$ never sells, so the box sells only when $v>r^*$. Then
The open seller can always replicate the closed allocation, so $V_0(0)\ge V_1(0)$, hence $\bar c\ge 0$.
At $c=E[v]$ the seller cannot make a positive profit by opening the box:
By charging a price of $0$, a closed-box seller can always guarantee a zero profit:
So $V_1(E[v])\ge V_0(E[v])$: closed is (weakly) better at $c=E[v]$, hence $\bar c\le E[v]$.
The seller can no longer tailor the price to $v$:
Being unable to condition the price on $v$ shrinks the returns to opening: the open region shrinks ($\underline c\le\bar c$), and possibly $\underline c<0$.
$\tilde V_0$ drops below $V_0$; its crossing with $V_1$ moves left, so $\underline c\le\bar c$.
We could have $\underline c<0$. When instead is $\underline c>0$? Set $c=0$ and ask when opening is strictly optimal:
Open: price $x$, sells w.p. $Q(v-x)$. · Closed: reservation $x$, price $\int (v-x)\,dF(v)$, sells w.p. $Q(x)$.
The two sides differ only in where $Q$ is evaluated: at the buyer's net value $v-x$ (open) versus at the reservation $x$ (closed).
Convenient because $z_i=\min\{r_i,v_i\}\in\{0,r_i\}$: if such a box does not fail, an optimally-searching buyer adopts it at once.
An open seller's value $\tilde V_0(q)$ rises smoothly in $q$; it can sit strictly above the closed-box envelope $\tilde V_1$ over a middle range.
An open box of value $v$ at price $P$ is purchased with
So the open-box seller's problem is
Hence, by the envelope theorem,
$\tilde V_0$ rises with slope in $[0,E[v]]$, so it crosses the closed envelope from below then above, giving the interval $(q_L,q_H)$.
Suppose the buyer has a single box, with zero cost and uniform value in $[0,1]$. Then
The pivot price $p^\star$ is where expected surplus $\int_x^{\bar v}(v-x)\,dF(v)$ meets the 45° line (its exact value depends on $F$). For a price $p>p^\star$, surplus falls below the 45° line, so the induced reservation value $r(p)$ is lower than $p$.
With $Q(x)=x$, the two problems coincide at $c=0$:
The maximizer $x^*=\arg\max_{x}\int_x^1 x\,(v-x)\,dF(v)$ satisfies the FOC
The FOC $\int_{x}^1(v-2x)\,dF(v)=0$ pins down $x^*$ where the marginal curve hits zero.
Claim: $x^*\ge p^\star$. From the FOC,
so $x^*$ lies weakly above the pivot. The optimal closed-box price sets $r(P)=x^*$, which requires $P<p^\star$: the closed price is lower.
A high-cost box has $r_k<r(P^*)$: it doesn't change demand for the closed box at $P^*$, but it lowers demand for an open box at low values, tilting the seller toward closed.
Two sellers, each with a box; $v_1,v_2\sim F$ and $c_1,c_2$ on $[0,1]$. Sellers simultaneously choose open/closed and a price; the buyer searches sequentially.
Efficient benchmark: open the cheapest box first (if its cost $<\tfrac12$); open the second only if $\displaystyle\int_{v_1}^{\bar v}(v-v_1)\,dF(v)\ge c_2.$
Thank you!